[Corriewf]

Originally Posted by nitro

There is a big difference between allowing members to make public service requests which are then arranged privately and permitting publicly veiwable posts that are prematurely slandering one transaction party.

Yes i do not disagree that a lack of comunication is wrong, just as is over communication.

There are aspects in the first post that is far from correct.

One of those is where the complainee states "sometimes the phone is busy sometimes it just rings, telling him the other party is at the place where the phone is". Wrong does not allways work like that.
Lets say I was calling some one and during that attempt some one else tried to also contact the same person by phone, yep they would get a busy signal on many networks. therefore this is no indication whoever is in while your getting mixed signals. Do not assume what is not fact.

The facts as we know are

Theres a lack of comunication between the parties on one side during the time set.
Theres a publicly premature slanderous post.
And a website has permitted the premature slander to remain published.

Pretty easy to see there which ones would get the benefit in a full legal dispute imo.

I know where I would be going if that was being done against myself.

First I would prove the slander in a law suit in the first instance giving excellent grounds for a suit against the publishing website, regardless of any disclaimers about posts are members veiws only.

Such as newspapers etc do not have such disclaimers ie "the views expressed in our articles are the veiw of the journalist not the newspaper" because in court as a publisher they are responsible, the disclaimer would not hold water any more than a coulander.

Yeah and let me know about the class action you are probably working on for someone not warning you that coffee is served hot.

Goodluck finding a lawyer or a court to handle your case.. There is no slander in his post. He stated the facts from his end without name calling.

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